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USMLE Pharmacology MCQS and Case Studies Solutions 68

01. Ecothiophate (for ophthalmic actions) inhibits? 
A. Acetylcholinesterase
B. Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)
C. DOPA decarboxylase
D. MonoamineOxidase
E. Tyrosine hydroxylase

Answer: 1. Acetylcholinesterase

02. In experimental studies, when anesthetized subjects are treated intravenously with drug X, they exhibit a large decrease in diastolic BP, a slight increase in systolic BP, and a marked increase in the heart rate. The pretreatment of the subjects with Propranolol blocks these effects. Drug X is most likely one of the following?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Epinephrine
C. Histamine
D. Isoproterenol
E. Norepinephrine

Answer: D. Isoproterenol

03. A 56-year-old patient is suffering from a markedly diminished interest in most daily activities, loss of energy, an inability to concentrate, and a feeling of worthlessness. Her physician prescribes an antidepressant. Three weeks after the patient begins taking the drug, she complains of insomnia and nervousness. Which of the following antidepressant drugs is most likely to cause the most recent symptoms?
A. Amoxapine
B. Clonazepam
C. Fluoxetine
D. Imipramine
E. Prazosin

Answer: C. Fluoxetine
 
04. A 65 years old man has episodes of sudden, repeated, lightning bursts of pain involving the upper part of the left side of his face. The pain is excruciating, with each burst lasting for a few seconds. Which of the following drug is the drug of choice for this disease?
A. Barbiturates
B. Carbamazepine
C. Local anesthetics
D. Non-opioid analgesics
E. Opioid analgesics

Answer: B. Carbamazepine

05. A 25 years old female is brought to the emergency room with an increase in heart rate, an increase in BP, mydriasis, behavioral excitation, aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations. If these symptoms are attributed to a drug overdose, which one of the following drugs is responsible?
A. Amphetamine
B. Ethanol
C. Fentanyl
D. Flunitrazepam
E. Marijuana

Answer: A. Amphetamine

06. A habitual user of a schedule-controlled drug abruptly stops using it. Within 8 hours she becomes anxious, gets severe abdominal pain with diarrhea, and starts sweating profusely. The symptoms intensify over the next 12 hours and she develops a runny nose, lacrimation, uncontrolled yawning, and muscular cramping. Assuming that these are the withdrawal symptoms due to her physical dependence, the most likely drug to be involved is:
A. Alprazolam
B. Amphetamine
C. Ethanol
D. Meperidine
E. Secobarbital

Answer: D. Meperidine

07. A patient with CCF is being treated with a drug affecting the renal tubules. After continued use, he developed hyperkalemia. Which of the following drugs may be responsible for his condition?  
A. Acetazolamide
B. Chlorothiazide
C. Chlorthalidone
D. Ethacrynic acid
E. Spironolactone

Answer: E. Spironolactone
 
08. A 42-year-old diabetic female was advised a diuretic by a local physician to control her hypertension. After using the drug her blood sugar levels raised frequently and were not controlled by her prescribed antidiabetic drugs. Which of the following diuretics may cause an increase in blood sugar levels by interfering with the release of insulin from the beta cell of the pancreas?
A. Acetazolamide
B. Amiloride
C. Chlorothiazide
D. Spironolactone
E. Triamterene

Answer: C. Chlorothiazide

09. After taking a diuretic for a few days, prescribed by a local physician a 38-year-old comes with a painfully swollen toe and is diagnosed with acute gout. He gave a history of being treated for elevated uric acid levels. Which of the following drugs may have aggravated this condition?
A. Acetazolamide
B. Allopurinol
C. Furosemide
D. Spironolactone
E. Triamterene

Answer: C. Furosemide
 
10. A 45-year-old male takes pravastatin for hypercholesterolemia; however, his cholesterol level remains above target at maximal doses. Cholestyramine is added to the therapeutic regimen. What drug-drug interaction can occur?
A. Both will show a synergistic effect
B. Cholestyramine inhibits gastrointestinal (GI) absorption of pravastatin
C. Pravastatin is a direct antagonist of cholestyramine
D. The combination causes elevated very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)

Answer: B. Cholestyramine inhibits gastrointestinal (GI) absorption of pravastatin
 
11. A 45-year-old male, post-myocardial infarction (post-MI) for one week is being treated with intravenous (IV) heparin. Stool guaiac was negative when admitted,  but now it's 4+, and he has had an episode of hematemesis. The heparin is stopped & now a drug is given to stop the bleeding. What drug was given?
A. Aminocaproic acid
B. Dipyridamole
C. Factor IX
D. Protamine
E. Vitamin K

Answer: D. Protamine

12. A 45-year-old male experienced epigastric pain that begins a few hours after a meal and is often accompanied by acidic regurgitation. Treatment with aluminum hydroxide relieves his symptoms but causes adverse effects. The most common adverse effect of this type of antacid is:
A. Constipation
B. Diarrhea
C. Headache
D. Hypertension
E. Vomiting

Answer: A. Constipation
 
13. A 15-year-old girl is diagnosed with primary dysmenorrhea. She is being treated with ibuprofen to relieve headaches, fatigue, and severe cramping pain associated with her menstrual cycle. The patient is advised to call her physician to call if the drug causes gastrointestinal disturbances. Gastrointestinal effects induced by ibuprofen are mediated by:
A. Blockade of cholinergic receptors
B. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1
D. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase-2
E. Stimulation of motilin receptors

Answer: C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1
 
14. A 33-year-old woman has severe constipation. She has a busy work schedule and says that she usually “eats something” on the run and often eats only a few candy bars a day and drinks coffee. Her physician prescribes a bulk-forming laxative. Which of the following is the most likely agent prescribed?
A. Aluminum hydroxide
B. Bismuth
C. Phenolphthalein
D. Psyllium
E. Sucralfate

Answer: D. Psyllium
 

15. Despite treatment, a 4-year-old boy with asthma has been suffering from wheezing attacks for 2 years. He was referred to a pulmonary clinic and he begins therapy with fluticasone, albuterol, and an inhaler. Fluticasone reduces lung inflammation by which of the following mechanisms?
A. Blockade of phospholipid breakdown
B. Blockade of triglyceride breakdown
C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
D. Inhibition of lipoxygenase
E. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase

Answer: A. Blockade of phospholipid breakdown
 
16. A 45-year-old male has severe persistent asthma with bronchial hyperactivity due to airway inflammation. His responsiveness to treatment with a variety of β2 – adrenergic receptor agonists has been decreasing. Therapy with which of the following immunosuppressive agents would most likely be recommended?
A. Azathioprine
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Cyclosporine
D. Flunisolide
E. Methotrexate

Answer: D. Flunisolide
 
17. A 26-year-old woman is infected simultaneously with Treponema Pallidum, Neisseria gonorrhea, and Chlamydia trachomatis. Which of the following drugs would be most effective against all three of these sexually transmitted diseases?
A. Ampicillin
B. Cephalexin
C. Doxycycline
D. Penicillin G
E. Streptomycin

Answer: C. Doxycycline

18. A 48-year-old man is brought to the hospital in a coma. The medical record indicates that he has a long history of liver cirrhosis and signs of mental impairment. He has been treated previously for esophageal varices and ascites. The physician administers an antibiotic that will sterilize the patient’s intestinal tract and thereby reduce the burden of toxic substances absorbed from the intestine. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate without placing the patient at risk of drug toxicity? 
A. Ampicillin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Clindamycin
D. Neomycin
E. Nystatin

Answer: D. Neomycin
 
19. A 27-year-old who has AIDS reports for a regular checkup and complains of headache and difficulty with eye-hand coordination. He is found to have cerebral toxoplasmosis but there is no evidence of Pneumocystis jirovecii. The most appropriate treatment for this patient is with?
A. Mebendazole
B. Mefloquine
C. Praziquantel
D. Pyrimethamine plus sulfadiazine
E. Trimethoprim plus sulfamethoxazole

Answer: D. Pyrimethamine plus sulfadiazine
 
20. A neonate is found to have meningitis due to Haemophilus influenza. Treatment with an improper dosage of which of the following drugs would place the patient at risk of “Gray baby” syndrome?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Clindamycin
D. Gentamycin
E. Tetracycline

Answer: B. Chloramphenicol
 

21. A 3-year-old-girl is taken to the emergency department because she has had a temperature of 39° C for 7 hours, is drooling, has difficulty breathing, and is making noisy expiratory sounds. Examination shows a swollen epiglottis and cherry red throat. Which of the following antimicrobials would be the most appropriate for empiric parenteral therapy?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Cephalexin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Penicillin G
E. Vancomycin

Answer: A. Ceftriaxone

22. A 30-year-old man with AIDS is diagnosed with advanced cavity tuberculosis. Which of the following treatments would be most effective in the management of the patient’s T.B?
A. Isoniazid plus cycloserine
B. Isoniazid plus ethambutol
C. Isoniazid plus pyrazinamide plus rifampin
D. Pyrazinamide plus streptomycin
E. Rifampin plus cycloserine

Answer: C. Isoniazid plus pyrazinamide plus rifampin
 
23. A 24-year-old woman complains of itching and redness around the pelvic area and says that the symptoms are most intense during the night. Examination shows the presence of Phthisis pubis. Which of the following drug will eradicate the infestation?
A. Mebendazole
B. Metronidazole
C. Permethrin
D. Praziquantel
E. Tetracycline

Answer: C. Permethrin

24. A 33-year-old patient with AIDS has a history of numerous opportunistic infections. He experiences a sudden decrease in visual acuity and is found to have a reduced field of vision. Funduscopic examination shows a typical picture of retinochoroiditis caused by Cytomegalovirus (CMV), and serologic evaluation confirms the diagnosis. Which of the following drugs is most appropriate for initial treatment?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Foscarnet
C. Gentamicin
D. Hydrocortisone
E. Vidarabine

Answer: B. Foscarnet
 
25. Estrogen receptor-positive tumor cells are detected in a 54-year-old postmenopausal woman with breast cancer. Which of the following would act by blocking estrogen receptors in her breast tissue?
A. Levonorgestrel
B. Nafarelin
C. Octreotide
D. Sermorelin
E. Tamoxifen

Answer: E. Tamoxifen
 
26. The “minipill” containing only progestin, rather than a combination estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive, was developed because of progestin alone:
A. Is a more effective contraceptive drug as compared to two combined
B. Because it's less likely to induce cardiovascular (CVS) disorders
C. Is thought to be less likely to induce endometriosis
D. Results in a more regular menstrual cycle
E. Results in less depression and cholestatic jaundice

Answer: B. Because it's less likely to induce cardiovascular (CVS) disorders

27. Which of the following is an H2-receptor antagonist?
A. Cimetidine
B. Cyproheptadine
C. Fluoxetine
D. Ondansetron
E. Sumatriptan

Answer: A. Cimetidine

Medicinal Chemistry & Pharmacology MCQs For FPGEE Exam 67

01. Clopidogrel belongs to which of the following class of antiplatelet agents?
A. Dipyridamole
B. Theinopyridines
C. Glycoproteins inhibitors
D. Fabric acid derivatives
E. Polyamines

Answer: B. Theinopyridines


02. Which of the following drug belongs to the Oxazolidinone class of Antibiotics?
A. Erythromycin
B. Linezolid
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Oxytetracycline
E. Sulbactam

Answer: B. Linezolid

03. Which of the following is a Coumarin derivative Anticoagulant agent?
A. Heparin
B. Clopidogrel
C. Warfarin
D. Abciximab
E. Ticlopidine


Answer: C. Warfarin


04. Which of the following is an indandione analog Anticoagulant agent?
A. Heparin
B. Clopidogrel
C. Warfarin
D. Abciximab
E. Anisindione

Answer: E. Anisindione

05. Naphthalene ring containing Antihyperlipidemic drug in the structural formula is the following?
A. Rosuvastatin
B. Simvastatin
C. Fluvastatin
D. Atorvastatin
E. Colestipol

Answer: B. Simvastatin


06. Following drug consists of an aromatic derivative ring in the structural formula?
A. Pravastatin
B. Lovastatin
C. Atorvastatin
D. Simvastatin
E. Colestipol

Answer: C. Atorvastatin

07. Which of the following drug is prototypical phenylalkylamine?
A. Diltiazem
B. Verapamil
C. Losartan
D. Amlodipine
E. Amiloride


Answer: B. Verapamil


08. Which of the following drug is belong to the dihydropyridines class of antihypertension?
A. Diltiazem
B. Verapamil
C. Losartan
D. Amlodipine
E. Amiloride

Answer: D. Amlodipine

09. An antihyperlipidemic drug that consists of a closed six-membered lactone ring in the structural formula?
A. Pravastatin
B. Fluvastatin
C. Atorvastatin
D. Simvastatin
E. Rosuvastatin

Answer: D. Simvastatin


10. Antihyperlipidemic drugs consist of open hydroxy acid lactone ring in the structural formula except?
A. Pravastatin
B. Fluvastatin
C. Atorvastatin
D. Simvastatin
E. Rosuvastatin


Answer: D. Simvastatin

11. In which of the following diuretics, cyclic sulfonamide is replaced by an Amide?
A. Chlorthalidone
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Bendroflumethiazide
D. Chlorothiazide
E. Methylchlorothiazide

Answer: A. Chlorthalidone


12. Which of the following Diuretic drugs contain cyclic sulfonamide Except?
A. Methylchlorothiazide
B. Indapamide
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Bendroflumethiazide
E. Chlorothiazide

Answer: B. Indapamide

13. The structural formula of the following drugs contains the Biphenyl methyl group except for?
A. Losartan
B. Valsartan
C. Candesartan
D. Eprosartan
E. Olmesartan

Answer: D. Eprosartan

14. Which of the following drug contain the Carboxylic group, replaced with tetrazole ring in the structural formula?
A. Losartan
B. Valsartan
C. Telmisartan
D. Candesartan
E. Irbesartan

Answer: C. Telmisartan

15. Which of the following groups are found in the structural formula of Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors Except?
A. Sulfahydril group
B. Carboxylate group
C. Phosphinic acid group
D. Thiol group
E. Imidazole ring

Answer: E. Imidazole ring


16. Which of the following group is a compulsory part structural formula of Losartan?
A. Sulfahydril group
B. Carboxylate group
C. Phosphinic acid group
D. Thiol group
E. Imidazole ring

Answer: E. Imidazole ring

17. Which of the following drug is a Non-dihydropyridine antihypertensive drug?
A. Amlodipine
B. Nifedipine
C. Diltiazem
D. Carvedilol
E. Bumetanide

Answer: C. Diltiazem

18. Which of the following drug is a Dihydropyridine antihypertensive drug?
A. Amlodipine
B. Ethacrynic
C. Diltiazem
D. Carvedilol
E. Bumetanide

Answer: A. Amlodipine

19. Which of the following drug are indandione derivative oral anticoagulants?
A. Phenindione
B. Heparin
C. Dicumarol
D. Phytonadione
E. Menadione

Answer: A. Phenindione

20. Which of the following drug are coumarin derivative oral anticoagulants?
A. Phenindione
B. Heparin
C. Dicumarol
D. Phytonadione
E. Menadione


Answer: C. Dicumarol

21. Which of the following drug contain the Sulfahydril group in the structural formula?
A. Lisinopril
B. Enalapril
C. Ramipril
D. Quinapril
E. Captopril

Answer: E. Captopril


22. Which of the following drugs are carboxylate derivatives of ACEIs except?
A. Ramipril
B. Quinapril
C. Fosinopril
D. Lisinopril
E. Enalapril

Answer: C. Fosinopril

23. The following drug is a phenylalanine derivative?
A. Repaglinide
B. Nateglinide
C. Metformin 
D. Pioglitazone

Answer: B. Nateglinide

Medicinal Chemistry MCQs FOR FPGEE Exam 66

01. Which substance is degraded by COMT (Catechol-O-Methyl transferase)?
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Catechol estrogens
E. All of these

Answer. E. All of these

02. A thiophene-containing agent that blocks the synthesis of leukotrienes by inhibiting 5_ lipoxygenase is the following?
A. Zileuton
B. Acetaminophen
C. Zafirlukast
D. Montelukast


Answer: A. Zileuton


03. An agent that contains sulfonamide structure in structural formula and blocks cysLT¹  receptor thus blocking the effect of leukotrienes?
A. Zileuton
B. Acetaminophen
C. Zafirlukast
D. Ergotamine

Answer: C. Zafirlukast

04. Which of the following drug contain sulfonamide structure in the structural formula?
A. Meloxicam
B. Mefenamic acid
C. Celecoxib
D. Acetaminophen
E. None of these

Answer: C. Celecoxib


05. Para-aminophenol derivative drug is the following?
A. Meloxicam
B. Mefenamic acid
C. Celecoxib
D. Acetaminophen
E. None of these


Answer: D. Acetaminophen

06. Nabumetone is a prodrug derived from which of the following class?
A. Propionic acid derivative
B. Salicylic Acid derivatives
C. Acetic acid derivative
D. Fenamic acid derivative
E. Enolic acid derivative

Answer: C. Acetic acid derivative


07. Ketorolac is derived from which of the following class? 
A. Propionic acid derivative
B. Salicylic Acid derivatives
C. Acetic acid derivative
D. Fenamic acid derivative
E. Enolic acid derivative


Answer: A. Propionic acid derivative

08. Which of the following is a Sulphamoyl Derivative diuretic drug?
A. Ethacrynic Acid
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Chlorthalidone
D. Bumetanide
E. Metolazone


Answer: E. Bumetanide

09. Which of the following drug is Phenoxy acetic acid derivative diuretic?
A. Benzthiazide
B. Chlorthalidone
C. Ethacrynic acid
D. Torasemide
E. Furosemide

Answer: C. Ethacrynic acid 

10. A fenamic acid derivative of Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs also called?
A. Acetic acid
B. Oxicam
C. Propionic acid
D. Salicylates
E. N-arylanthranilic acids


Answer: E. N-arylanthranilic acids


11. An enolic acid derivative of Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs also called?
A. Acetic acid
B. Oxicam derivative
C. Propionic acid
D. Salicylates
E. N-arylanthranilic acids

Answer: B. Oxicam derivative

12. Which of the following drug is a derivative of N- arylanthranilic acid?
A. Diflunisal
B. Etodolac
C. ketorolac
D. Mefenamic Acid
E. Piroxicam

Answer: D. Mefenamic acid

13. Which of the following drug is a derivative of Enolic acid?
A. Diflunisal
B. Etodolac
C. ketorolac
D. Mefenamic Acid
E. Piroxicam

Answer: E. Piroxicam

14. Which of the following drug is a derivative of Acetic acid?
A. Diflunisal
B. Etodolac
C. ketorolac
D. Mefenamic Acid
E. Piroxicam

Answer: B. Etodolac

 
15. Which of the following drug is a derivative of Propionic acid?
A. Diflunisal
B. Etodolac
C. ketorolac
D. Mefenamic Acid
E. Piroxicam

Answer: C. Ketorolac

16. Which of the following drug is a derivative of Fenamic acid?
A. Diflunisal
B. Etodolac
C. ketorolac
D. Mefenamic Acid
E. Piroxicam

Answer: D. Mefenamic Acid

17. Which of the following drug is the Propionic acid derivative NSAID?
A. Aspirin
B. Naproxen
C. Mefenamic Acid
D. Diclofenac
E. Piroxicam

Answer:  B. Naproxen

18. Which of the following drug is Pyrazolone Derivative NSAID?
A. Indomethacin
B. Nimesulide
C. Phenylbutazone
D. Ketorolac
E. Diclofenac


Answer: C. Phenylbutazone

19. Prostaglandin is derived from prostanoic acid, prostanoic acid contains 20 carbon fatty acids, how many carbons rings are in the structural formula of prostanoic acid?
A. 6 carbon ring
B. 5 carbon ring
C. 4 carbon ring
D. 3 carbon ring
E. 2 carbon ring

Answer: B. 5 carbon ring

20. Which of the following drug is a derivative of salicylic acid?
A. Diflunisal
B. Etodolac
C. ketorolac
D. Mefenamic Acid
E. Piroxicam

Answer: A. Diflunisal

Medicinal Chemistry MCQs For FPGEE Exam 65

01. Which drug belongs to the Quinoline methanol antimalarial class?
A. Mefloquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Quinine
D. Quinidine
E. Pyrimethamine
 
Answer
 A. Mefloquine is a drug that belongs to the Quinoline methanol antimalarial class used in malaria by Acting on the membrane of parasite and damage this membrane of plasmodium falciparum. It's effective against the erythrocytic form of the malarial parasite.
Chloroquine
Chloroquine is a 4-aminoquinoline drug prepared synthetically also used in antimalarial therapy. Chloroquine is a drug of choice in the treatment of erythrocytic Plasmodium falciparum.
Quinine And Quinidine

 Quinidine is a stereoisomer of Quinine. Both of these drugs affect on Erythrocytic form of plasmodium falciparum which results in the death of the parasite.
Pyrimethamine
 Pyrimethamine is an antifolate agent used as Blood Schizonticide. It inhibits Plasmodium dihydrofolate reductase.


02. Select Dihydropyridines Calcium channel blocker drug?
A. Nifedipine
B. Diltiazem
C. Verapamil
D. Acetazolamide
E. Amiloride


Answers:
A. Nifedipine, Dihydropyridine is a 1,4-Dihydropyridine ring structure that is needed for Channel blocking activity. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker.
other drugs
Diltiazem
 is also a calcium channel blocker. Diltiazem is represented by Benzothiazipines, acting on  Cardiac Calcium channels leading to vasodilation to decrease blood pressure.
Verapamil
 Verapamil act just like diltiazem, it's a phenylalkylamines that also act on calcium channel blockers leading to a decrease in blood pressure.
Acetazolamide
It's a Diuretic drug used to decrease blood pressure by decreasing the reabsorption of  
Sodium in the convoluted proximal tubules. Acetazolamide is also used to reduce aqueous humor production lead's to treat Glaucoma.
Amiloride
belongs to Potassium-sparing Diuretics used to reduce blood pressure by blocking sodium channel. Sodium channels are present in collecting tubules from where these sodium ions are reabsorbed.


03. Select Phenyl Alkylamine Calcium channel blocker drug?
A. Nifedipine
B. Diltiazem
C. Verapamil
D. Triamcinolone
E. Triamterene

Answer:
 C. Verapamil
Verapamil is a phenylalkylamine from a class of calcium channel blockers that act on the vascular system and cardiac calcium channel to decrease blood pressure.
Diltiazem, Nifedipine as above mentioned

Triamcinolone
 triamcinolone is a corticosteroid

Triamterene
triamterene is also a potassium-sparing Diuretic act just like Amiloride.


04. Indomethacin belongs to one of the following class?
A. Acetic acid derivative 
B. Oxicam derivative 
C. Propionic acid 
D. Fenamates 

Answer: A. Acetic acid derivative 


05. Sulindac belongs to one of the following class?
A. Acetic acid derivative 
B. Oxicam derivative 
C. Propionic acid 
D. Fenamates 


Answer: A. Acetic acid derivative 

06. Ibuprofen belongs to one of the following class?
A. Acetic acid derivative 
B. Oxicam derivative 
C. Propionic acid 
D. Fenamates 


Answer: C. Propionic acid 

07. Heteroaryl acetic acid drug is following?
A. Diclofenac 
B. Nabumetone
C. Piroxicam
D. Indomethacine
E. Ibuprofen 

Answer: A. Diclofenac 

08. Heteroaryl acetic acid drug is following?
A. Tolmetin
B. Nabumetone
C. Piroxicam
D. Indomethacin
E. Ibuprofen 


Answer: A. Tolmetin


09. Mafenamic acid belongs to following class?
A. Fenamates
B. Oxicam
C. Acetic acid 
D. Propionic acid
E. Salicylic acid 

Answer: A. Fenamates

10. Imidazoline derivative drug with Alpha2 adrenoceptors effect?
A. Dipivefrin
B. Clonidine
C. Albuterol
D. Phentolamine


Answer: B. Clonidine is a Selective Alpha-adrenergic agonist having increased activity for the Alpha receptor as compared to Beta receptors. Apraclonidine and  Brimonidine are derivatives of Clonidine that activate the Alpha ² receptor in the eye thus used to treat Open-Angle Glaucoma topically.
Clonidine is used as an antihypertensive agent by reducing sympathetic output from CNS because it has an effect on central Alpha ²-adrenoceptors.
Other Options 
Dipivefrin,  it's a prodrug of epinephrine which recommended for Treat Open-Angle Glaucoma. Meanwhile, it's a Catechol diester prodrug. It decreases aqueous humor production by activating the Alpha² receptor present in the ciliary body.
Albuterol, Beta² selective agonist leading to bronchodilation.
Phentolamine is a Selective Alpha-adrenergic antagonist because it has similar to Alpha-adrenergic Agonists but lipophilic substitution on the aromatic ring is lacking in phentolamine so that's why it can't act as an Alpha-adrenergic agonist. it is used to treat increased blood pressure.


11. Imidazoline derivative drug with Alpha1 adrenoceptors effect?
A. Oxymetazoline
B. Clonidine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Apraclonidine
E. Brimonidine

Answer: A. Oxymetazoline ( nasal decongestant )
Detail Same As Above.


12. N-Substitutions of the catecholamine pharmacophore with isopropyl groups or aryl-alkyl groups improve the selectivity of which receptor?
A. Beta Receptor
B. Alpha Receptor
C. Muscarinic Receptor
D. Dopaminergic receptor
E. Neuromuscular Activity


Answer: A. Beta Receptor

13. Which one of the following drugs is tertiary amine antispasmodic?
A. Dicyclomine
B. Propantheline
C. Cyclopentolate
D. Oxybutynin
E. Biperiden

Answer: Dicyclomine

14. Which one of the following drugs is Quaternary compound antispasmodic?
A. Dicyclomine
B. Propantheline
C. Cyclopentolate
D. Oxybutynin
E. Biperiden

Answer: Propantheline

15. Following is the Structural analog of the aldosterone antagonist spironolactone with androgenic activity but to a little extent?
A. Bicalutamide
B. Fluoxymesterone
C. Mifepristone
D. Drospirenone
E. Megestrol Acetate

Answer: D. Drospirenone is the Structural analog of spironolactone.


16. Following are the 17 alpha-Hydroxyprogesterone derivatives Having a pregnane nucleus in the structural formula?
A. Bicalutamide
B. Fluoxymesterone
C. Mifepristone
D. Drospirenone
E. Megestrol acetate

Answers: E. Megestrol acetate is the 17 alpha-Hydroxyprogesterone derivative Having a pregnane nucleus in the structural formula.


17. Antihistamine agent with nonsedative effect from the chemical class of piperidines is the following?
A. Fexofenadine
B. Cetirizine
C. Cyproheptadine
D. Promethazine
E. Hydroxyzine


Answer: A. Fexofenadine

18. Antihistamine agent with nonsedative effect from the chemical class of piperazine is the following?
A. Fexofenadine
B. Cetirizine
C. Cyproheptadine
D. Promethazine
E. Hydroxyzine


Answer: B. Cetirizine

19. Phentolamine and Tolazoline have similar structures to imidazoline Alpha Agonists due to a lack of?
A. Hydrophilic substitutions on the aromatic ring
B. Lipophilic substitutions on the aromatic ring
C. Lipophilic substitutions on the Cyclic ring
D. Hydrophilic substitutions on the Cyclic ring
E. None of these

Answer: B. Lipophilic substitutions on the aromatic ring



20. The structural formula of epinephrine and Norepinephrine is called?
A. Catechol
B. Pyrocatechol
C. 1,2-dihydroxybenzene
D. All of these

Answer: D. All of these

How to become a pharmacist in canada?

How to Get Pharmacist Registration in Canada

Steps involved in Pharmacist Registration in Canada?
  1. Documents Evaluation
  1. PHARMACIST Evaluating Exam
  1. PHARMACIST Qualifying Exam 
  • Part 1 MCQ
  • Part 2 OSCE
1. Documents Evaluation
2. Pharmacist Evaluation  Exam
3. Pharmacist Qualifying Examination
Part 1 (MCQ)
Part 2 (OSCE)
If you are trying to get registration as a PHARMACIST in CANADA then you need to have some knowledge about PEBC ( Pharmacy Examining Board of Canada) is an organization in Canada for the Pharmacy field, Canadian pharmacy requirements,s and the Steps involved in the overall registration process. As an international student and if you are applying from your home country then you have to spend some money along with a long time period of almost 4 to 6 months depending on how much they would take time to accept your application and evaluation process.
Three main steps in this process are needed to complete before setting for the PEBC exam which is the following:
Documents evaluation is the first step in the gateway to Canada as a pharmacist. In this step, you have to send all your educational documents as required by PEBC for evaluation. This step is a necessary step in which you will prove that you have a valid degree in pharmacy from a recognized college or university and also this degree is acceptable to the PEBC or completing their requirements. Most of the pharmacy degree completion years around the globe are almost 4 years and 5 years in pharmacy. So that's why they'll evaluate your pharmacy degree as per their requirement. They'll charge $530CAN for this evaluation. When they will receive your documents evaluation application and fee for evaluation they'll send you an email to notify you about the application. All the information about your application status will be shared by sending you an email by PEBC. PEBC also provides you an identification number.
Documents required for Evaluation for PEBC exam:
You need to submit the following documents:
  • Documents Evaluation Application
  • Fee $550CAN
  • Identification Documents (Passport, Country i.d, Marriage certificate, etc)
  • Pharmacy Degree
  • Transcript
  • Pharmacy License
  • Any additional documents required by NABP
Any deficiency in documents needed for complete evaluation will cause a delay in the evaluation process. So make sure before sending documents that all the demanded documents are attached and sent to NABP for evaluation.

There are 2 exams in the registration process the pharmacist exam is 1st exam to pass and then you have to attempt the Qualifying exam for registration as a pharmacist. After passing this exam, you will be eligible to write the Qualifying exam part 1 and 2. The fee required for exam registration is $515CAD. This step is required to check your knowledge skills to make sure that you have completed a pharmacy degree that is comparable with the pharmacy program taught in Canada. After passing this step, Apply for the next exam. Send your Evaluation exam report and document evaluation applications in a joint envelope. By visiting the PEBC website to check their deadline date, your documents must reach before the deadline date. You have 5 years to pass this evaluation exam.

After completion of the documents evaluation and passing the Evaluation examination, you are eligible to sit for Qualifying Exams. This qualifying exam is based on 2 parts, out of which one part is multiple choice questions and the other part is an Objective structural Clinical Examination. Both of these steps could be attempted in a single day depending upon you as you have the option to attempt them on different days. This exam is a competitive exam just to check the quality of pharmacists and Quality of knowledge to make accuracy in clinical practice. After passing the qualifying exam, PEBC will issue you a certificate of registration.


Controlled Drugs MCQs 64

01. An immunomodulatory agent that inhibits the DHODH needed for the synthesis of pyrimidine. Which one of the following drugs is a 5-HT1D receptor agonist?
A. Sumatriptan
B. Zolmitriptan
C. Dihydroergotamine
D. A & B
E. All of the above



Answer: E. All of the above
Dihydroergotamine works by tightening blood vessels in the brain and by stopping the release of natural substances in the brain that causes swelling.

02. Dihydroergotamine is a vasoconstrictor and is the most effective drug during one of the following phases of migraine?
A. Asymptomatic phase
B. Prodromal phase
C. Headache phase
D. Both A & C


Answer: B. Prodromal phase


03. Which one of the following drugs interferes with sexual performance and decreases exercise tolerance?
A. Lisinopril
B. Losartan
C. Metoprolol
D. Nifedipine


Answer: C. Metoprolol
Beta-blockers cause this combination of adverse effects.

04. Disturbance in color vision occurs by using one of the following drugs?
A. Sildenafil
B. Terbutaline
C. Diltiazem
D. Alendronate
 

Answer: A. Sildenafil


05. Loss of blue and green discrimination is the adverse effect of the following drug?
A. Sildenafil
B. Tadalafil
C. Vardenafil
D. A & B
E. All of the above


Answer: A. Sildenafil
Sildenafil also inhibits PDE-6 found in the retina.


06. What is the antidote of Alprazolam?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Fomepizole
D. Amyl Nitrate
E. Phentolamine

Answer: B. Flumazenil

07. Amenorrhea in some cases is treated by Bromocriptine because of it?
A. Increases the synthesis of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B. Inhibits prolactin release
C. Is an estrogen antagonist that enhances gonadotropin release
D. Stimulates the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
E. Stimulates the ovary directly


Answer: B. Inhibits prolactin release 


08. Which one of the following PDE-5 drugs has the shortest half-life?
A. Sildenafil
B. Vardenafil
C. Tadalafil
D. Tamsulosin


Answer: A. Sildenafil
Has a half-life of 3-4 hours.


09. Which one of the following statements about the use of PDE-5 inhibitors is incorrect?
A. Causes Nasal congestion
B. Tadalafil disturb color vision
C.  Used for erectile dysfunction
D. Increase blood flow to corpus cavernosum

Answer: B. Tadalafil disturb color vision
Tadalafil doesn't disturb color vision. Sildenafil disturbs color vision.

10. Which one of the following drugs increases the blood flow into the corpus cavernosum?
A. Tamsulosin
B. Tadalafil
C. Alendronate
D. Phentermine


Answer: B. Tadalafil


11. Sumatriptan succinate is used for the treatment of acute migraine headaches. Does it act by?
A. selective agonist at 5-hydroxytryptamine 1D (5-HT1D) receptors
B. selective antagonist at histamine (H1) receptors
C. agonist at nicotinic receptors
D. antagonist at β1- and β2-adrenergic receptors
E. inhibitor of prostacyclin synthase

Answer: A. selective agonist at 5-hydroxytryptamine 1D (5-HT1D) receptors

12. Which one of the following neuroleptic drugs commonly causes weight gain?
A. Haloperidol
B. Thioridazine
C. Fluphenazine
D. Clozapine

Answer: D. Clozapine
Because atypical neuroleptic drugs commonly cause weight gain.

13. Which one of the following drugs causes potentially fatal agranulocytosis in 1-2% of patients?
A. Olanzapine
B. Haloperidol
C. Clozapine
D. Risperidone

C. Clozapine


14. Which one of the following drugs acts as a partial agonist at D² receptors?
A. Clozapine
B. Haloperidol
C. Aripiprazole
D. Risperidone

Answer: A. Aripiprazole

15. Which one of the following drugs is a strong opioid agonist?
A. Tramadol
B. Nalmefene
C. Codeine
D. Fentanyl

Answer: D. Fentanyl

16. Which one of the following drugs is a low or moderate opioid Agonist?
A. Tramadol
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Nalbuphine

B. Codeine

17. First-line treatment for Partial Seizures?
A. Zonisamide
B. Clobazam
C. Carbamazepine
D. Gabapentin
E. Diazepam

Answer: C. Carbamazepine, Is an agent to treat epilepsy. The mechanism of Action of Carbamazepine is by blocking the Sodium channel that leads to inhibition of the generation of the repetitive action potential by blocking their spread. Hyponatremia is caused by Carbamazepine.
Other drugs, Gabapentin is not a GABA  Analog or acts on the GABA receptor. It MOA is unknown but used in partial seizure as an adjunct drug with others used for Partial seizure. Mainly used as Neuralgia.
Zonisamide
  An antiepileptic drug with a broad spectrum mechanism of Action such as blocked both voltage-gated sodium channel, T-type calcium channel, Carbonic anhydrase activity. Also used for Partial seizure. A kidney stone is an adverse effect of Zonisamide.
Diazepam  
Diazepam is an anxiolytic and Hypnotic drug of class Benzodiazepines. Mechanism of Action of Diazepam acts on the GABA receptor which is an inhibitory neurotransmitter. Acts by opening the GABA channel to conduct the Chloride ions influx leads to inhibit the action potential.

18. A drug used to treat toxicity of CNS Depression and respiratory depression reversal of opioid anaesthesia is following?
A. Flucytosine 
B. Flumazenil 
C. Naloxone 
D. Physostigmine 
E. Atropine 

Answer C. Naloxone (compete at three CNS opioid receptors and lead to reversal of the depressive opioid effects).
Dose: 0.4-2mg IV titrated to effect 

Controlled Drugs MCQs 63

01. Drowsiness and confusion is the adverse effect of one of the following drugs?
A. Flumazenil
B. Tetracyclin
C. Candesartan 
D. Alprazolam

Answer: Alprazolam
Benzodiazepines have these two adverse effects commonly.

02. Which one of the following drugs is a short Acting barbiturate drug?
A. Thiopental
B. Secobarbital
C. Phenobarbital
D. Hydroxyzine

Answer: B. Secobarbital

03. Which one of the following drugs is used to reduce the toxicity of Diazepam?
A. Pyridostigmine
B. Pyridoxine
C. Flumazenil
D. Cyproheptadine
E. A & B 

Answer: C. Flumazenil

04. Flumazenil is used to reduce the toxicity of one of the following drugs?
A. Pyridostigmine
B. Lead 
C. Fluoxetine
D. Triazolam

Answer: D. Triazolam

05. A drug that blocks the 5-HT³ serotonin receptor is one of the following drugs?
A. Ondansetron
B. Pyridoxine
C. Scopolamine
D. Metoclopramide


Answer: A. Ondansetron

06. Ritodrine hydrochloride is used in the treatment of
a) Bronchial asthma
b) Depression
c) Hypertension
d) Parkinson’s disease
e) Premature labor 

Answer: e) Premature labor 

07. The reversible cholinesterase inhibitor indicated in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease is
a) Ambenonium
b) Edrophonium
c) Neostigmine
d) Pyridostigmine
e) Tacrine


Answer: e) Tacrine

08. What is the antidote to protriptyline?
A. Coumadin
B. Labetalol
C. Diazepam
D. Sodium Bicarbonate

Answer: D. Sodium Bicarbonate
Sodium Bicarbonate is used to maintain alkalinization. An arterial PH of 7.45 to 7.55 decreases the free fraction of absorbed toxins.

09. What is the antidote of Triazolam?
A. Heparin
B. Pyridostigmine
C. Atropine
D. Flumazenil


Answer: D. Flumazenil

10. Which one of the following drugs is a potent inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase thus preventing the formation of toxins by ethylene glycol or methanol?
A. Pyridostigmine
B. Coumarin 
C. Deferoxamine
D. Fomepizole



Answer: D. Fomepizole

11. Which one of the following antidepressants has a narrow therapeutic index?
A. Doxepin
B. Citalopram
C. Trazodone
D. Sertraline


Answer: A. Doxepin


12. An antidepressant drug that has a wide therapeutic index is one of the following drugs?
A. Paroxetine
B. Protriptyline
C. Desipramine
D. Amitriptyline


Answer: A. Paroxetine


13. Phenelzine belongs to one of the following classes of antidepressants?
A. MAOIs
B. SNRIs
C. SSRIs
D. Tricyclics


Answer: A. MAOIs

14. Peripheral effects are the adverse effect of Levodopa, this adverse effect is diminished by adding one of the following drugs in the therapy?
A. Amantadine
B. Carbidopa
C. Selegiline
D. Ropinirole
E. Entacapone

Answer: B. Carbidopa


15. Which one of the following drugs belongs to the serotonin/norepinephrine/dopamine reuptake inhibitor (SNRIs)?
A. Venlafaxine
B. Fluoxetine
C. Nortriptyline
D. Trazodone


Answer: A. Venlafaxine

16. Paroxetine is an antidepressant drug that belongs to one of the following types?
A. SNRIs
B. SSRIs
C. Tricyclics
D. MAOIs


Answer: B. SSRIs

17. Which one of the following drugs is an antidepressant Acting as a noradrenaline-specific reuptake inhibitor (NRI)?
A. Phenelzine
B. Reboxetine
C. Paroxetine
D. Citalopram


Answer: B. Reboxetine

18. When one of the following drugs is administered later than mid-afternoon it produces insomnia?
A. Amantadine
B. Carbidopa
C. Selegiline
D. Ropinirole
E. Entacapone


Answer: C. Selegiline
Because selegiline is metabolized to amphetamine and methamphetamine, these are CNS stimulating drugs thus causing insomnia.

19. One of the following drugs is COMT inhibitor?
A. Entacapone
B. Levodopa
C. Amantadine
D. Ropinirole
E. Selegiline

Answer: A. Entacapone 
Entacapone
It's a COMT inhibitor drug used in Parkinson's disease to enhance the concentration of Levodopa in the CNS. it acts by decreasing the plasma concentration of 3-O-methyldopa that competes with Levodopa for active transport into the CNS.


20. Which one of the following drugs is a selectively MAO type B inhibitor drug?
A. Entacapone
B. Levodopa
C. Amantadine
D. Ropinirole
E. Selegiline 

Answer: E. Selegiline

Controlled Drugs MCQs. 62

01. Which one of the following drugs is not active orally and is either inhaled or administered intranasally?
A. Oseltamivir
B. Adamantadine
C. Zanamivir 
D. Amantadine
E. None of these 

Answer: C. Zanamivir 

02. A 36 years old lady is taking imipramine for phobic anxiety disorder and her 25 years old husband is being treated with chlorpromazine for a psychotic disorder. Which of the following adverse effects is likely to occur in both of these individuals?
A. Decreased seizure threshold
B. Excessive salivation
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Pupillary constriction
E. Weight loss

Answer: C. Orthostatic hypotension.

03. Which one of the following drugs is long Acting benzodiazepines?

A. Temazepam 
B. Triazolam 
C. Zolpidem 
D. Flurazepam 

Answer: D. Flurazepam

Classification of Benzodiazepines:
Short Acting: Triazolam, Oxazepam, Midazolam 
Intermediate: Alprazolam, Temazepam, Estazolam, Lorazepam 
Long Acting: Diazepam, Flurazepam, Chlordiazepoxide, Quazepam, Clorazepate, Clonazepam


04. Which one of the following drugs is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine?
A. Zaleplon 
B. Flurazepam
C. Temazepam
D. Triazolam

Answer: Temazepam

05. Which one of the following drugs is a short-acting benzodiazepine?
A. Eszopiclone 
B. Flurazepam
C. Triazolam
D. Temazepam

Answer: C. Triazolam

06. Which one of the following drugs is a nonbenzodiazepine drug?
A. Triazolam
B. Flurazepam
C. Zolpidem
D. Temazepam


Answer: C. Zolpidem

07. Alprazolam belongs to one of the following classes of benzodiazepines?
A. Short Acting benzodiazepine
B. Long Acting benzodiazepines
C. Intermediate Acting benzodiazepine
D. Nonbenzodiazepine


Answer: C. Intermediate Acting benzodiazepine 

 
08. Clonazepam belongs to one of the following classes of benzodiazepines?
A. Short Acting benzodiazepine
B. Intermediate Acting benzodiazepine
C. Long Acting benzodiazepines
D. Nonbenzodiazepine


Answer: C. Long-Acting benzodiazepines


09. Which one of the following actions of benzodiazepines is true?
A. Muscle relaxant
B. Anticonvulsant
C. Anterograde amnesia
D. A & B 
E. All of the above

Answer: E. All of the above


10. Which one of the following drugs is a less potent and more slowly eliminated drug?
A. Triazolam
B. Alprazolam
C. Temazepam
D. Flurazepam 

Answer: D. Flurazepam

11. Which one of the following drugs is an antagonist to benzodiazepines?
A. Buspirone 
B. Hydroxyzine
C. Flumazenil
D. Zolpidem

Answer: C. Flumazenil 


12. Which of the following drugs are hypnotic agents? 
A. Phenobarbital
B. Antihistamine
C. Zolpidem
D. Chloral hydrate 
E. All of the above

Answer: E. All of the above


13. Which one of the following statements about the actions of benzodiazepines is wrong?
A. Reduce anxiety
B. Causes Sedation 
C. Memory impairment
D. Analgesic activity

Answer: D. Analgesic activity

14. A Benzodiazepine that continues to improve sleep even after discontinuation?
A. Triazolam
B. Alprazolam
C. Flurazepam
D. Temazepam 

Answer: C. Flurazepam

15. Which one of the following anxiolytic drugs causes hypothermia and increases prolactin and growth hormone?
A. Buspirone
B. Hydroxyzine
C. Venlafaxine 
D. Triazolam

Answer: A. Buspirone


16. Which one of the following barbiturate drugs has long Acting activity?
A. Pentobarbital
B. Thiopental
C. Phenobarbital
D. Buspirone

Answer: A. Phenobarbital 


17. A Benzodiazepine drug that is more potent and rapidly eliminate from the body?
A. Alprazolam
B. Triazolam
C. Temazepam 
D. Flurazepam

Answer: B. Triazolam

18. Which one of the following drugs has more frequent and severe withdrawal problems with rapidly eliminating property?
A. Alprazolam
B. Diazepam
C. Triazolam
D. Flurazepam

Answer: C. Triazolam

19. Neostigmine will effectively antagonize skeletal muscle relaxation produced by
a) Baclofen
b) Diazepam
c) Nicotine
d) Pancuronium

Answer: d) Pancuronium 

Because Neostigmine is a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent used to manage myasthenia gravis with a duration of 30 minutes to 2 hours.

Duration of Action of indirect acting cholinergic agonist or anticholinesterases agents (Reversible)

Edrophonium: 10 to 20 minutes 

Physostigmine (natural): 30 minutes to 2 hours 

Neostigmine (synthetic): 30 minutes to 2 hours 

Pyridostigmine: 3 to 6 hours longer than Neostigmine 


20. Applied to the skin in a transdermal patch (transdermal therapeutic delivery system), this drug is used to prevent or reduce the occurrence of nausea and vomiting that are associated with motion sickness
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Dimenhydrinate
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Ondansetron
E. Scopolamine


Answer: E. Scopolamine

21. Toxicity of following drugs can cause stunted growth in adolescent shrinkage of testicles, gynecomastia, increased risk of prostate cancer in men?
A. Androgenic anabolic steroids 
B. Barbiturates 
C. Cocaine
D. Dextromethorphan 
E. Ethanol 

Answer: A. Androgenic anabolic steroids 
These steroids are taken by orally or injected in cycles of weeks or months.